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IBPS Marketing Officer Model Question Paper,it has 50 questions on Professional Knowledge with answers,Bold option is the Answer for each question.

Professional Knowledge Model Question Paper for IBPS  Marketing Officer

1. Marketing in banks is defined as

a)    Negotiable Instruments Act

b)    Banking Regulation Act

c)     Reserve Bank of India Act

d)    Companies Act

e)    None of these

2. Marketing in Banks is

a)    A one-day function

b)    A one-man function

c)     A one-off affair

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

3. Effective Marketing helps in

a)    Boosting the purchases

b)    Boosting the sales

c)     Diversified business

d)    Realization of dreams

e)    All of these

4. A ‘Buyer’s market’ means

a)    Buyers are also sellers

b)    Sellers are also buyers

c)     They are not sellers

d)    Demand exceeds supply

e)    Supply exceeds demand

5. The sequence of a sales process is

a)    A call, a lead, presentation and sale

b)    A lead, a call, presentation and sale

c)     Presentation, sale, lead and call

d)    Presentation, lead, sale and call

e)    Sale, call, lead and presentation

6. A presentation means

a)    Display of products

b)    Explain the utility products

c)     A gift

d)    Display of communication skills

e)    All of these

7. A ‘leads’ means

a)    A buyer

b)    A seller

c)     A company intending to its products

d)    A prospective buyer

e)    A disinterested buyer

8. ‘Benchmark’ means

a)    Products line up on bench

b)    Sales man sitting on a bench

c)     Set standards

d)    Marks on a bench

e)    None of these

9. ‘Customization’ means

a)    Customers personal accounts

b)    Customer selling goods

c)     Special products for each customer

d)    Better relations

e)    All of these

10. Customer Retention means

a)    Retaining the customers at the bank for the full day

b)    Quick disposal

c)     Customers dealing with the same bank for a long time

d)    Better standards

e)    All of these

11. Value-added services means

a)    Giving full value for money

b)    Better value for better price

c)     Costlier service

d)    Additional service

e)    All of these

12. “POS” means (in marketing)

a)    Preparation for sales

b)    Point of superiority

c)     Point of sales

d)    Primary Outlook of salesmen

e)    Position of sales

13. ‘Niche’ Market means

a)    A free market

b)    A social market

c)     Equity market

d)    Capital market

e)    A specified market for the target group

14. A market plan is

a)    Company’s prospectus

b)    Same as memorandum of association

c)     A document for marketing strategies

d)    Business goals

e)    Action plan for better production

15. “HNI” in marketing means

a)    High number influence

b)    Highly negative individual

c)     High networth improvement

d)    High networth individual

e)    High inspired national

16. One of the following is not required for effective marketing. Find the same

a)    Motivation

b)    Empathy

c)     Communication skills

d)    Sympathy

e)    Perserverance

17. Effective communication skills are not required in marketing if

a)    Demand exceeds supply

b)    Supply exceeds demand

c)     Buyer is illiterate

d)    Seller is illiterate

e)    None of these

18. Competition helps to

a)    Diminish sales

b)    Boost sales

c)     Neutral effect

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

19. Negotiation skills help in

a)    Arriving at consensus

b)    Breaking the ice

c)     Carrying marketing further

d)    Mutual win-win result of bargaining

e)    All of these

20. Relationship Marketing is useful for

a)    Trade between relatives

b)    Trade between sister concerns

c)     Cross-selling of products

d)    Preparing a list of relatives

e)    There is no such term as relationship marketing

21. Marketing is not required for which one of the following products?

a)    Corporate loans

b)    Export business

c)     Import business

d)    Credit card business

e)    None of these

22. ATM means

a)    Any time marketing

b)    Any time money

c)     Any time machine

d)    Automated teller machine

e)    Automatic teller money

23. Good Public Relation indicate

a)    Improved marketing skills

b)    Improved brand image

c)     Improved customer service

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

24. One way of market monitoring is

a)    Monitor performance of sales persons

b)    Monitor sensex

c)     Monitor Media outlets

d)    Monitor profits

e)    None of these

25. Networking helps in marking marketing function

a)    A difficult task

b)    A laborious task

c)     An easy task

d)    Networking has nothing to do with marketing

e)    Networking has only a partial role to play in marketing

26. Digital banking can be resorted through:

a)    Mobile phones

b)    Internet

c)     Telephones

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

27. Delivery channel means —

a)    Maternity wards

b)    Handing over the products to the buyers

c)     Place where products are made available to the buyers

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

28.  Marketing Expansion means —-

a)    Hiring more staff

b)    Firing more staff

c)     Buying more products

d)    Buying more companies

e)    Growth in sales through existing and new products

29. Effective marketing helps in —

a)    Developing new product

b)    Creating a competitive environment

c)     Building demand for products

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

30. One of the methods for market monitoring is —-

a)    To watch TV serials

b)    To discuss with other sales persons

c)     To monitor media outlets

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

31. Source of sales Leads are —-

a)    Data mining

b)    Market research

c)     Media research

d)    Promotional programs

e)    All of these

32. Promotion in marketing means —-

a)    Passing an examination

b)    Elevation from one grade to another

c)     Selling the products through various means

d)    Selling the products in specific area

e)    All of these

33. A call in marketing means:

a)    To phone the customers

b)    To visit the customers

c)     To visit the marketing site

d)    To call on prospective customers

e)    None of these

34. Value-Added Service means:

a)    Costlier products

b)    Additional benefits at the same cost

c)     Extra work by the sales persons

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

35. Rural Marketing can be more effective if it is arranged through:

a)    Melas

b)    Village fairs

c)     Door to door campaigns

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

36. The target group for marketing of Educational Loans is:

a)    All customers

b)    Students

c)     Only poor students

d)    Students with good academic record

e)    All of these

37. After sales service is not the job of:

a)    Marketing staff

b)    Sales persons

c)     Directors of the company

d)    Employees of the company

e)    All of the above are false

38. Innovation means:

a)    Product designing

b)    New ideas

c)     Motivation

d)    Only (a) and (b)

e)    Only (b) and (c)

39. A good sales person should have following quality/qualities:

a)    Job commitment

b)    Sociability

c)     Empathy

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

40. Successful marketing aims at:

a)    Increasing the sales volume

b)    Increasing the profits

c)     Increasing the outputs of the sales persons

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

41. Internet marketing means:

a)    Marketing to oneself

b)    Marketing to core self

c)     Marketing to the employees

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

42. Market survey means:

a)    Market research

b)    Market plan

c)     Marketing strategies

d)    Market monitoring

e)    All of these

43. Rural Marketing need not be restored to because:

a)    Rural persons do not understand marketing

b)    It is not cost viable

c)     It is a waste of time

d)    All the statements are false

e)    All the statements are true

44. Networking makes marketing:

a)    Very difficult

b)    Very cumbersome

c)     Easy to handle

d)    Has no rule marketing

e)    None of these

45. The target group for marketing of Internet Banking is:

a)    All customers

b)    All literate customers

c)     All computer literate customers

d)    Only borrowers

e)    None of these

46. Difference between direct and indirect bank marketing is —-

a)    Direct marketing is to do Bank’s employees, Indirect is to outsiders

b)    Direct marketing is to outsiders, Indirect is to employees

c)     Direct marketing is to Bank’s owners, Indirect is to outsiders

d)    Direct marketing is to other banks employees, Indirect is to outsiders

e)    None of these

47. Transaction marketing means—-

a)    Marketing only to strangers

b)    Mere selling of goods

c)     Doing banking transactions

d)    All of the above

e)    None of these

48. In Marketing it is necessary to Identify—–

a)    Potential sellers

b)    Selling employees

c)     Potential products and services

d)    Key existing and potential customers

e)    All the above

49. NRI is an easy target for effective marketing because —-

a)    He likes Indian goods

b)    He does not like Indian goods

c)     He is easily approachable

d)    It is cheaper to contact NRI’s

e)    There are special products designed for NRI’s

50. A DSA helps in —

a)    Boosting Direct sales

b)    Contacting Customers on Net

c)     Indirect marketing

d)    Direct telemarketing

e)    None of these

1. RBI’s open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate ____

(A) Liquidity in the economy

(B) Prices of essential commodities

(C) Inflation

(D) Borrowing power of the banks

(E) All the above

Ans (E)

2. Open market operations , one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means ____

(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities

(B) Issuance of different types of bonds

(C) Auction of gold

(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers

(E) None of these

Ans (A)

3. The bank rate means ___

(A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers

(B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers

(C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits

(D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

4. What is an Indian Depository Receipt?

(A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank

(B) A deposit account with any of depositories in India

(C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against
underlying equity shares of the issuing company

(D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by an Indian depositories

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

5. Fiscal deficit is ____

(A) total income less Govt. borrowing

(B) total payments less total receipts

(C) total payments less capital receipts

(D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

6. In the capital market , the term arbitrage is used with reference to ____

(A) purchase of securities to cover the sale

(B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase

(C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price

(D) variation in different markets

(E) Any of the above

Ans (C)

7. The stance of RBI monetary policy is _____

(A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth

(B) improving credit quality of the Banks

(C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism

(D) supporting investment demand in the economy

(E) Any of the above

Ans (E)

8. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage ___

(A) currency risk

(B) interest rate risk

(C) currency and interest rate risk

(D) cash flows in different currency

(E) All of the above

Ans (D)

9. “Sub-prime” refers to_______

(A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR

(B) funds raised by the banks at sub – Libor Rates

(C) Group of banks which are not rate as prime banks as per Banker’s Almanac

(D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards

(E) All of the above

Ans (D)

10. Euro Bond is an instrument _____

(A) issued in the European market

(B) issued in Euro currency

(C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

11. Money laundering normally involves _____

(A) placement of funds

(B) layering of funds

(C) integrating of funds

(D) All of (A), (B) & (C)

(E) None of (A), (B) & (C)

Ans (D)

12. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to ____

(A) strengthening international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy

(B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation

(C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction

(D) All of (A),(B) & (C)

(E) None of (A),(B) & (C)

Ans (D)

13. Capital Market Regulator is _____

(A) RBI

(B) IRDA

(C) NSE

(D) BSE

(E) SEBI

Ans (e)

14. In the term BRICS , R stands for ______

(A) Romania

(B) Rajithan

(C) Russia

(D) Regulation

(E) Npne of these

Ans (C)

15. FDI refers to _____

(A) Fixed Deposit Interest

(B) Fixed Deposit Investment

(C) Foreign Direct Investment

(D) Future Derivative Investment

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

16. Which is the fist Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ?

(A) Reliance

(B) TCS

(C) HCL

(D) Infosys

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

17. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India?

(A) RBI

(B) SBI

(C) SIDBI

(D) SEBI

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

18. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda?

(A) Juhi Chawala

(B) Kiran Bedi

(C) Amitabh Bachchan

(D) Kapil Dev

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

19. The Branding Line of Bank of Baroda is ____

(A) International Bank of India

(B) India’s International Bank

(C) India’s Multinational Bank

(D) World’s Local Bank

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

20. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as ___

(A) Sun of Bank of Baroda

(B) Baroda Sun

(C) Bank of Baroda’s Rays

(D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

21. One of the major challenges banking industries is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/ norms are launched by the banks by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ?

(A) Know your customer norms

(B) Banking Regulation Act

(C) Negotiable Instrument Act

(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

22. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers . What is the full form of ‘M’ in ‘M-Banking’?

(A) Money

(B) Marginal

(C) Message

(D) Mutual Fund

(E) Mobile Phone

Ans (E)

23. Which of the following is/are true about the “Sub-Prime Crisis” ? (The term was very much in news recently.)

(1) It is a Mortage Crisis referring to Credit default by the borrowers

(2) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers

(3) This crisis originated of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1,2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

24. Which of the following is NOT the part of the structure of the financial System in India ?

(A) Industrial Finance

(B) Agricultural Finance

(C) Government Finance

(D) Development Finance

(E) Personal Finance

Ans (E)

25. Which of the following is NOT the part of the Scheduled Banking structure in India ?

(A) Money Lenders

(B) Public Sector Banks

(C) Private Sector Banks

(D) Regional Rural Banks

(E) State Co-operative Banks

Ans (A)

26. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ?

(1) Tax on Income

(2) Tax on Expenditure

(3) Tax on property or Capital Asset

(4) Tax on Goods and Services

(A) Both 1 and 3 only

(B) Both 2 and 4 only

(C) All 1,2,3 & 4

(D) Only 2,3 and 4

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

27. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ?

(1) To attract foreign investment directly

(2) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals

(3) To provide more capital to agriculture and allied activities

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1,2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans (A)

28. Which of the following groups of the countries has almost 50% share in Global emission of carbon every year ?

(A) US, China, India, South Africa

(B) India, china, Russia , Britain

(C) South Africa, Nepal , Myanmar

(D) US, Russia, China & India

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

29. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is Future Trading ?

(1) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges where in it is decided to purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year

(2) It is an agreement between two parties to buy and sell an underlying asset in the future at a predetermined price

(3) It is agreement between Stock Exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1,2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

30. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA?

(A) George Bush

(B) Barack Obama

(C) John McCain

(D) Boll Clinton

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

31. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the _____

(A) President of Cango

(B) Prime Minister of Uganda

(C) President of Venezuela

(D) Prime Minister of Brazil

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

32. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly _____

(A) Rs. 60,000 crores

(B) Rs. 65,000 crores

(C) Rs. 72,000 crores

(D) Rs. 76,000 crores

(E) Rs. 80,000 crores

Ans (A)

33. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation the next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next Census due ?

(A) 2010

(B) 2011

(C) 2012

(D) 2013

(E) 2015

Ans (B)

34. The world Health Organization has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ?

(A) Tobacco

(B) Alcoholic drinks

(C) Junk Food

(D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives

(E) None of these

Ans (A)

35. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims ?

(A) Japan

(B) South Korea

(C) China

(D) South Africa

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

36. Which of the foloowing names is NOT closely associated with space Programme of India or any other country ?

(A) CARTOSAT

(B) NLS-5

(C) RUBIN-8

(D) GSLV

(E) SCOPE

Ans (E)

37. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with game of _____

(A) Hockey

(B) Cricket

(C) Badminton

(D) Football

(E) Golf

Ans (B)

38. Which of the following was theme of the Olympic Torch ?

(A) Journey of Harmony

(B) Green World Clean World

(C) Journey of Peace

(D) Jouney of Hunger-free World

(E) None of these

Ans (A)

39. Which of the following schemes is NOT a social development Scheme ?

(A) Indira Awas Yojana

(B) Mid Day Meal

(C) Bharat Nirman Yojana

(D) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan

(E) All are Social Schemes

Ans (C)

40. Which of the following is NOT a member of ASEAN ?

(A) Maleysia

(B) Indonesia

(C) Vietnam

(D) Britain

(E) Singapore

Ans (D)

41. Which of the following awards are given for the excellence in the field of Sports ?

(A) Kalinga Prize

(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award

(C) Arjun Award

(D) Pulitzer Award

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

42. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ?

(A) Cost of Living Index (COLI)

(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)

(C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

(D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
Answer: B

3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
Answer: B

4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
Answer: B

5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer

6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: B

7. Malicious software is known as:
A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
Answer: B

8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate

9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
Answer: B

10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
Answer: A

11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B

12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
D. CD-RW.
Answer: A

13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C

14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C

15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B
16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C

17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No

18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D

19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D

20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A

21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software
Answer: B

22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D

23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B

24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A

25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography

26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
D. UPS.
Answer: D

27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
D. UPS
Answer: B

28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. don’t borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.
Answer: B

29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
C. PGP
D. private and public keys
Answer: C

30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking
Answer: B

31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key
Answer: B

32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.
Answer: A

33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars
Answer: D

34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system
Answer: D

35. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.
Answer: B

Fill in the Blank:

36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects.
Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging

37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.
Answer: crime

38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.
Answer: Internet

39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.
Answer: Theft

40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases.
Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft

41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.
Answer: notebook

42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________.
Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy

43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks.
Answer: macro virus

44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.
Answer: worms

45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.
Answer: Antivirus

46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.
Answer: nothing or free

47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.
Answer: Hackers or hacking

48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.
Answer: Cracking

49. DoS stands for ___________.
Answer: denial of service

50. DDoS stands for ___________.
Answer: distributed denial of service

51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.
Answer: Webjackers

52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.
Answer: Audit-control

53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.
Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography

54. PGP stands for ___________.
Answer: Pretty Good Privacy

55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.
Answer: user identifier or user ID

56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know.
Answer: attachments

Matching:

57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:
I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998
II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online
III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals
V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making worm
VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe product
Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D

58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:
I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies
II. handle e-mail carefully B. don’t choose a dictionary word
III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer
IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy
V. if it’s important, back it up E. encrypt
VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software
Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E

2. The ____ allows you to choose where to go and is located below the Standards Buttons toolbar.
A System menu
B Address bar
C Menu bar
D none of the above
Ans (B)

3. A ____ is a set of computer instructions that carry out a task on the computer.
A program
B database
C memory file
D none of the above
Ans (A)

4. An operating system version designed for home use is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (A)

5. A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to be ____.
A user-happy
B user-simple
C user-friendly
D none of the above
Ans (C)

6. When you press and release the secondary mouse button you are ____.
A Right-clicking
B Left-clicking
C either a. or b.
D neither a. nor b.
Ans (A)

7. Another term for hyperlink is ____.
A link
B source
C bar
D none of the above
Ans (A)

8. A ____ is a flash memory storage device that plugs into a USB port.
A USB snap drive
B USB flash drive
C USB memory maker drive
D none of the above
Ans (B)

9. An operating system version designed for use with a Media Center PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (B)

10. A graphical user interface displays ____.
A graphics
B text
C both (A) and (B).
D neither (A) nor (B).
Ans (C)

11. When you quickly press and release the left mouse button twice, you are ____.
A Primary-clicking
B Double-clicking
C pointing
D none of the above
Ans : Try Yourself!

12. Underlined text, such as text and folder names is referred to as a ____.
A hyperlink
B menu
C source drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)

13. The ____ program compresses larger files into a smaller file.
A WinZip
B WinShrink
C WinStyle
D none of the above
Ans (A)

14. An operating system version designed for use with a tablet PC is Microsoft Windows XP ____.
A Home Edition
B Media Center Edition
C Tablet PC Edition
D none of the above
Ans (C)

15. The ____ displays the name of every computer user on the computer.
A Wish list screen
B Command screen
C Welcome screen
D none of the above
Ans (C)

16. The ____ contains commands associated with the My computer window.
A Standards menu
B Start menu
C System menu
D none of the above
Ans (C)

17. Press the ____ button to have the window fill the entire screen.
A Close
B Maximize
C Minimize
D none of the above
Ans (B)

18. The ____ is the drive containing the files to be copied.
A source drive
B destination drive
C USB drive
D none of the above
Ans (A)

19. A ____ allows you to write on screen with a digital pen and convert that writing into characters that the PC can process.
A monitor RS
B tablet PC
C database manager
D media center
Ans (B)

20. A ____ is a pointing device.
A monitor
B mouse
C keyboard
D none of the above
Ans (B)

1) In the Union Budget 2011-12, Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit   for individual tax payers from Rs 1 lakh 60 thousand to _?
a.1 lakh 80 thousand
b.1 lakh 90 thousand
c. 2 lakh
d.2 lakh 20 thousand

2) A team from Dalhousie University in Halifax, Canada, discovered that a green alga invades tiny developing salamander embryos.  What is this phenomenon called?
a)Symbiosis
b)Photosynthesis
c) Ecdysis
d) Aestivation
3) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir’s I AM?
a.Nandita Das
b.Juhi Chawla
c.Tabu
d.Konkona Sen Sharma

4) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike  at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?
a. Lokpal Bill
b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill
c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill

5) Who won the National Jute Board-Kolkata international squash at Calcutta Racket Club on 3 April 2011 after defeating Omar Mosaad?
a.Karim Darwish
b.Khawaja Adil Maqbool
c. Ritwik Bhattacharya
d. Peter Nicol

6) Read the following statements:
1.He won the ATP Miami Masters crown by defeating Nadal and thus remained unbeaten in 2011.
2.He captured all four titles- the Australian Open, Dubai, elite Masters titles at Indian Wells and Miami in 2011.
3.He had won his first Miami Masters title in 2007.
4.He joined Roger Federer, Andre Agassi and Pete Sampras as the only players to win the Australian Open, Indian Wells and Miami in the same year.Identify the tennis player being referred to.
a.Novak Djokovic
b.Roger Federer
c. Andy Murray
d.Rafael Nadal

7) At the National Conference on Kharif Strategies, Agriculture Minister Sharad Pawar on 6 April 2011 mentioned that India has achieved an all-time high production of foodgrains. What was the estimation regarding foodgain production in 2010-11?
a.235.88 million tonnes
b.215 million tonnes
c. 261.34 million tonnes
d. 222.66 million tonnes

Which of the following steel plants in India achieved record production of 5.71 million tonnes (mt) of hot metal (a 6.3 per cent growth over 2009-10), 5.33 mt of crude steel (4.3 per cent) and 4.57 mt of saleable steel (4.3 per cent)?
a.Bhillai Steel Plant
b.Rourkela Steel Plant
c. Bokaro Steel Plant
d.Salem Steel Plant
9) The Department of Information Technology (DIT) on 5 April 2011 published a draft policy on which of the following to enable the government departments to provide services, including payment of utility bills and filing of tax with the use of a medium?
a.Mobile governance
b.E-governance
c. Service Delivery Gateway
d.Applications Inter-operability

10) Which of the following was not proposed in the Union Budget 2011-12 presented by pranab Mukherjee?
1.Special vehicles were proposed to be created in the form of Infrastructure Debt Funds to attract foreign funds.
2.Rs. 300 crore expenditure was proposed to promote horticulture centres in rain fed areas for increasing crop productivity.
3.For the manufacturing sector, the budget proposed reduction of basic customs duty on raw silk from 30 to 5 per cent.
4.Concessional 10 per cent Excise Duty was also proposed for fuel cell or Hydrogen cell-technology-based vehicles.

a.1 & 3
b.Only 2
c.Only 4
d.3 & 4

11) Sectors                                                                   Budgetary Allocations
1.Agriculture & Allied Activities                         A. Rs 14362 crore
2.Rural Development                                     B. Rs  38852 crore
3.Defence Sector                                           C. Rs 55438 crore
4.Industries & Minerals                                   D. Rs 164415 crore
A  B  C  D
a.1  4  2  3
b.2  1  3  4
c. 3  1  4  2
d.4  2  3  1

12) In the Budget it was proposed to provide sum of money for implementation of vegetable initiative to set in motion a virtuous cycle of higher production and incomes for the farmers. What was the proposed amount?
a.Rs 500 crore
b.Rs 300 crore
c. Rs 10000 crore
d. Rs 650 crore

13) According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.
i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations.
ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Neither I and ii
c)  Only i
d) Only ii

14) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Consider the following statements regarding Tsunami.
i) A Tsunami is a series of ocean waves that sends surges of water, reaching heights of over 100 feet onto land.
ii) Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make earthquakes and volcanoes common.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Only i
c) Only ii
d) Neither i nor ii

15) Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged?
a) Gujarat
b) Bihar
c) Haryana
d) Madhya Pradesh

16)Engineering and construction major L&T announced that it has achieved financial closure for which of the following with the help of 10-bank consortium led by SBI pitching in with Rs 11478 crore debt?
a.Kolkata Metro Rail Project
b.Pune Metro Project
c.Delhi Metro project
d.Hyderabad Metro Rail project

17) Indian cricket captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni was offered and accepted the honour of being chosen to get an honorary commission in which of the following?
a.Indian Navy
b.Territorial Army
c. Indian Air Force
d. Indian Para-military Force

18) Which of the following real estate firms on 5 April 2011 announced a gift in the shape of villas worth Rs. 9 crore to skipper M.S. Dhoni and his teammates following their victory in the World Cup 2011?
a.DLF
b.Amrapali
c. Unitech
d.Tata Construction & Projects Ltd

19) Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Murray
c. Fred Perry
d. Rod Laver
20) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was proposed to be being extended to the beneficiaries of which of the following Union Government schemes?
a.Mahatma Gandhi NREGA beneficiaries
b.Beneficiaries of Swavlamban pension scheme
c.Indira Gandhi National old Age Pension scheme beneficiaries
d.Beneficiaries of Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana

21) Which of the following companies announced their alliance with Chennai Super Kings as the official team partner for the upcoming IPL Season 4?
a. ONGC
b. Indian Oil Corporation
c. Hindusthan Petroleum
d. Gulf Oil Corporation

22) Scientists have identified five genes which raise the risk of Alzheimer’s disease. Consider the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s disease.
i) Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of Dementia.
ii) Problems that happen due to the Alzheimer’s are personality-disorder, decision making, abstract thinking and loss of initiative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only i
b) Only ii
c)  Both i and ii
d) Neither i nor ii

23) A giant predatory theropod dinosaur, similar in stature and size to Tyrannosaurus rex, has been identified by palaeontologists. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i) The new dinosaur, named Zhuchengtyrannus magnus, probably stood four metres tall, was 11 metres long and weighed around six tonnes.
ii) Like T. rex, it was a carnivore with huge powerful jaws.
iii) It ran on back legs, with small front limbs.
a) Only i and ii
b) Only i and iii
c)  Only ii and iii
d)  All i, ii and iii are correct

24) Solvay, the Belgian soda ash maker which sold a drugs unit a year ago, agreed to buy which of the following French companies to add specialty chemicals spanning ingredients for moisturisers and car-part polymers?
a.Rhodia
b.Danisco
c.Cognis
d.Le Zèbre

25) Gilead Sciences, a California based bio-pharmaceutical research firm, and its patent partner, Roche Holding AG, have sued which of the following Indian generic drug makers in March 2011 for allegedly infringing a US patent for Tamiflu, a drug used in treatment of bird and swine-flu infections?
a.Dr Reddy’s
b.Natco Pharma
c. Ranbaxy Laboratories
d. GlaxoSmithKline
26) AT&T on Sunday announced that it had agreed to buy T-Mobile USA from which of the following telecom companies for $39 billion?
a.Deutsche Telekom
b.Sprint Nextel
c.Verizon Wireless
d.Comcast

27) What is the prize-money of the golf tournament ‘Avantha Masters’ that began on 11 Feb 2010?
a. €1.5 million
b. €1 million
c. €2.5 million
d. €2 million
28) An international team of scientists, led by the Australian National University recently discovered evidence that the body’s immune cells often share information about foreign substances with each other to ward of invaders. The study can help increase the immunity level in human body against pathogens and cancer. Which of the followings are the symptoms of Cancer?
i) Weight Loss
ii) Excessive Sweating
iii) Lumps and Swelling (tumour)
iv) Enlargement of Spleen
Please choose the correct option:
a) i, ii, iii and iv
b) i and ii only
c)  i, ii and iii
d) only i

29) Which of the following companies in April 2011 filed a petition in the Supreme Court to block penal action initiated by the Income Tax authorities on its contested $2.5-billion tax bill?
a. Vodafone International
b. Bharti Airtel
c. Uninor
d. Tata Teleservices

30) Vivendi agreed to buy Vodafone Group’s 44% stake in which of the French mobile-phone operator’s for euro 7.95 billion ($11.3 billion) to win full control of its largest unit and secure more stable earnings?
a.T-Mobile
b.Orange
c. Virgin Mobile
d. SFR

31) A consortium comprising two companies acquired the IPL’s global Internet, mobile and audio rights, along with television rights in specific territories outside India, for the next four years. The consortium bagged the rights with a winning bid of Rs 261.6 crore in Chennai on 20 March 2011. Which are the two companies included in the consortium?
a. TIL & Nimbus Communication
b. Reliance Big Pictures & Zoom
c. TIL & Colors
d. Zoom and UTV Motion Pictures

32) Which chess player won his maiden Grand Master norm in the Chennai Open 2010 International Grand Master chess tournament on 1 Feb 2010?
a. R. Siddharth of Chennai
b. Kravtsiv of Ukraine
c. P. Shyam Nikhil of Tamil Nadu
d. Maxim Turov of Russia

33) Who was appointed member of ICC Cricket Committee as a representative of national coaches on 11 Feb 2010?
a. Gary Kirsten
b. Mark Taylor
c. Kumar Sangakkara
d. Tim May
34) At the European Geosciences Union meeting in Vienna, the scientists calculated that the Earth sees about __ thunderstorms every hour.
a) 670
b) 580
c) 760
d) 960

35) HCL Technologies on Thursday announced the expansion of its Smart Grid partner ecosystem by entering into strategic alliances with two data management software firms focused on the smart grid market. Which are the two firms with which HCL has entered into an alliance?
1. Infosys
2. eMeter
3. Cape Gemini
4. Tridium
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c.  2 & 4
d. 1 & 4

36) The Gujarat Government banned controversial book, entitled Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and his struggle with India. Who is the author of the book?
a) Joseph Lelyveld
b) Joseph Ponting
c) Hugh Grant
d) Vikram Seth

37) Which one of the following states imposed a blanket ban on plastic bags?
a) Delhi
b) Haryana
c) Himachal Pradesh
d)Tamil Nadu

38) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification?
a) Sharmila Tagore
b) Karan Johar
c)  Nafisa Ali
d) Om Puri
e) None of these

39) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of
a) Israel
b) Iran
c) Afghanistan
d) Indonesia

40) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)?
a) AP Singh
b) Arun Shourie
c) Sanjeev Tripathi
d) BK Gupta

41) When is the National Youth Day observed?
a) January 14
b) February 14
c)  August 31
d) January 12

42) What is Tejas?
A) Spacecraft
B) Missile
C) Submarine
D) Light combat aircraft

43) Who became the world number one badminton player?
a) Saina Nehwal
b) Wang Xin
c) Sania Mirza
d) Wang Shixian

44) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australia’s ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010?
a. Shane Watson
b. Simon Katich
c. Mitchell Johnson
d. Sachin Tendulkar

45) In India’s first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.
a.Tata Steel
b.Pantallons Retail
c. RIL
d.Maruti Suzuki

46) With his victory in the men’s large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson.
a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland)
b. Ahonen Janne (Finland)
c. Alexander Nicholas (USA)
d. Bardal Anders (Norway)

47) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in roll- out of services in these three circles?
a.Sistema Shyam Teleservices
b.Tata Teleservices
c. Reliance
d. BSNL

48) Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these

49) Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI

50) As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt.?
(i)  Tax on Income
(ii)  Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services

(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A34) C 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) E 50) C

Q.1.Which of the following enforcement mechanisms are provided by the Human Rights Committee, established under the Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966?
1. Reporting procedure.
2. Conciliation Commission.
3. Arbitration.
4. Inter-state communication system.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2and3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4, only
Ans: (c)
Q. 2. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The Customary International Law of Treaties was codified in the
(a) Vienna Convention, 1980
(b) Statute of the International Court of Justice
(c) Resolution of the U.N. General Assembly
(d) Vienna Declaration, 1993
Ans. (a)
Q. 3. Consider the following steps in the formation of a treaty:
1. Signatures of the accredited representatives.
2. Accession or adhesion.
3. Negotiation and Adoption.
4. Ratification or approval.
What is the correct order in which above find place with formation of a treaty?
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2
Ans. (d)
Q. 4. The de facto recognition embodies which of the following legal consequences?
1. The de facto recognized state becomes entitled to sue in the courts of recognizing states.
2. Diplomatic relations is established as per the rules of International law.
3. A de facto recognized state is entitled to sovereign immunity.
4. The recognized state is entitled to succession and possession of the properties situated in the territory of the recognizing states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4, only
(c) 1 and 2, only
(d) 3 and 4, only
Ans : (b)
Q. 5. Match List-I (Right) with List-II (Article in Universal Declaration of Human Right) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I (Right)                                                                  List II
Article in Universal Declaration of Human Rights)
A. Right to life,                                   1. Article 7
liberty and security of person
B. Equality before law                         2. Article 3
C. Right to seek asylum                       3. Article 15
D. Right to nationality                         4. Article 14
Codes:        A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Answer: (a)
Q. 6. Consider the following sources of international law listed in the Article 38 of the Statute of the international Court of Justice:
1. International Custom.
2. General principles of law recognized by civilized nations.
3. International conventions.
4. Judicial decisions and teachings of publicists.
What is the chronological order of the above in the Statute of International Court of Justice?
(a)1,4, 3,2
(b)2, 1,3,4
(c)3,I,2,4
(d)2,4,1,3
Answer: (c) 3,1,2,4
Q. 7. Which of the following is/are of the constituent element(s) of the international customary law?
1 .Uniformity
2. Reasonable time
3. Constancy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Q. 8. Consider the following statements about United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL):
1. It was established by the General Assembly in1966.
2. The members of the Commission are elected for terms of six years.
3. The terms of one third members expire every three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3, only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2, only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q. 9. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
The International Court of Justice is competent to decide the cases which are entrusted to it
(a) by the State Parties
(b) by virtue of the provisions of a treaty
(c) unilaterally and voluntarily though not consented by the other State
(d) under the clause ‘compulsory jurisdiction’
Ans: (a)
Q. 10. Which one of the following general principles of law is/are recognized by civilized nations?
1. Principles of municipal law.
2. Subsidiary means of determination of international law.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1 only
(c) Both I and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q. 11.Consider the following statements in respect of recognization of a government
1. There is no obligation on the part of a State to recognize a government of another State.
2. Recognition of a State necessarily implies recognition of government as well.
3. Recognition of a government once granted cannot be withdrawn
4: Recognition of a government once granted can be withdrawn.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Q. 12. Which one of the following may be regarded as a subsidiary means for determination of rules of international law?
(a) Law making treaties and treaty contracts
(b) International conventions and customs
(c) Juristic works and judicial/arbitral decisions
(d) General principles of law recognized by civilized nations
Ans. (c)
Q.13. De jure recognition will be conferred subject to fulfillment of which of the following requirements?
1. State to be recognized is capable of carrying internal and external relations independently.
2. State to be recognized is stable and willing to fulfill international obligations.
3. State to be recognized is capable of carrying diplomatic relation with recognized states.
4. State to be recognized is not stable and – incapable of carrying obligation under International Law,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Ans. (a)
Q.14. Match List-I (Judicial Principle/Issue) with List (Judicial Decision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List –I                                                                          List -II
(Judicial Principle/Issue)                                                 (Judicial Decision)

1. Retroactive effect does not                                           1. Civil Transport v Central

invalidate the acts of the previous government                       Air Transport
B. Legal effect of non-recognition                                      2. Tinoco Concessions
C. De facto recognition acts retroactively                           3.Luther v. Sagor
D. De facto insurgent government was given immunity     4. Arantzazu Mendi
A    B         C         D
(a) 1     2          3          4
(b) 4     3          2          1
(c) 1     3          2          4
(d) 4    2          3          1
Ans. (a)
Q. 15. Consider the following statements:
The principal of continuity of states means
1. the change in the government of a State does not affect the legal personality of the State.
2. the new government succeeds partially to rights and obligations of the predecessor government.
3: the change in the government of a State affects the legal personality of the State.
4. the new government succeeds absolutely to the rights and obligations of the predecessor government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4, only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2and4
Ans. (a)
Q. 16. Match List-I (Organ) with List-Il (Purpose) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I                                                                  List-II
(Organ)                                                             (Purpose)
A. General Assembly                                   1. Improving the standards of living of people
B. The Economic and Social Council          2. Administrative Body
C. The Trusteeship Council                         3. Deliberative Body
D. The Secretariat                                        4. Safeguarding the areas entrusted
Codes:
A  B C D
(a)  4 2 3 1
(b)  3 2 4 2
(c)  4 1 3 2
(d)  3 2 4 1
Ans. (b)
Q. 17. Which one of the following is not included in the term ‘Aggression’ in the ‘U.N. General Assembly Resolution of December 15 1974?
(a) Use of armed forces by a State. against sovereignty of another ‘State
(b) Use of force by the people towards securing the right to self determination
(c) Blockade of the parts and coast of a State by the armed forces of another State
(d) The temporary attack by the armed forces of a State on the territory of another State
Ans. (b)
Q. 18. Who appoints the Secretary General of the U.N.?’
(a) The General Assembly
(b) The Security Council
(c) The judges of the International Court of Justice
(d) The General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council
Ans. (d)
Q. 19. Consider the following statements:
Principle of domestic jurisdiction implies:
1. that the U.N. cannot interfere with the mailers which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of a state.
2. that any matter which is regulated by International Law may not be a matter within the domestic jurisdiction of a State.
3. that the principle of domestic jurisdiction shall not prejudice the application of enforcement measures under Chapter VII of the U.N. Charter.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2and 3
(b) l and 3, only
(c) 1 and 2, only
(d) 2 and 3, only
Ans: (b)
Q.20. Who out of the following is entrusted with the job of enforcement of the judgments of the International Court of Justice?
(a) The General Assembly of the U.N.
(b) The Security Council of the U.N.
(c) Both the General Assembly and the Security Council -
(d) The International Court of Justice
Ans. (b)
Q. 21. Match List-I (Subject) with List-!! (Article of ICESCR) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                                                                                  List-II
(Subject)                                                                   (Article of ICESCR)
A. The right to fair conditions of employment          1. Article 3
B. The right to work                                                   2. Article 5
C. Equality between men and women                        3. Article 6
D. The right to form and join                                     4. Article 7
trade unions                                                               5. Article 8
Codes:
A    B        C           D
(a) 4     1          2          5
(b) 5     3          1          4
(c) 4     3          1          5
(d) 5    1          2          4
Ans. (c)
Q. 22. Match List-I (Agency) with     List-II (Procedure/Covenant) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below lists:
List-I                                                                        List-II
(Agency)                                                        (Procedure/Covenant)
A. Human Rights Committee                1.Country mechanisms or mandates; and thematic
mechanisms or mandates
B. U.N. Commission Human Rights     2. The Covenant on Economic, Social and
Cultural Rights, 1966
C. Economic and Social Council            3.Optional Protocol to International Covenant
on Civil and Political Rights, 1966
D. Individual Communication System   4.The international Covenant on Civil and
Political Rights, 1966
Codes:
A B C D
(a)3 2 1 4
(b)4 1 2 3
(c)3 1 2 4
(d)4 2 1 3
Ans: (b)
Q. 23. What does violation of right actionable per se
mean ?
(a) Not actionable
(b) Actionable without proof of any damage
(c) Actionable on proof of actual damage
(c Actionable against some persons only on proof of damage
Ans. (b)
Q. 24. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Grundnorm is the basis hypothesis of:
(a) H. Kelsen
(b) J. Austin
(c)H.EA. Hart
(d) H. Gray
Aim. (a)
Q. 25. Which of the following are correct combinations?
1. Bentham and natural law.7
2 Austin and positivism.
3. Roscoe Pound and sociological jurisprudence.
4. Henry Maine and philosophical school.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a)1 and 2,only
(b) 2 and 3, only
(c)3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
Directions: Below are two statements, labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A. and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
( b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but B is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q. 26. Assertion (A) : Once a decision is overruled, it loses its binding authority.
Reason (R) Precedent is a source of law.
Ans. (b)
Q, 27. Assertion (A) : Savigny was Darwinian before Darwin.
Reason (R) : Savigny applied the theory of evolution to law before the enunciation of the doctrine of evolution by Darwin.
Ans. (a)
Q. 28. Assertion (A) : Analytical school of jurisprudence believes in thread   bare analysis of the concepts like person, property, ownership, possession, right etc.
Reason (R) Analytical school of jurisprudence believes in threadbare analysis of the history of law.
Ans: (c)
Q. 29. Assertion (A) : Owner of property has a right to destroy the same.
Reason (R) Right to ownership includes the right to hold, possess, enjoy, alienate as well as destroy.
Ans. (a)
Q. 30, Which one of the following sets does not represent
tests of authority of custom ?
(a) Continuance, peaceable enjoyment
(b) Antiquity, obligator force
(c) Certainty, reasonableness
(d) Codification; moral
Ans. (d)
Q. 31. Match List-J(Source) and List (Related Matter) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I                                                                         List I
(Source)                                                             (Related Matter)
A. Legislation                                                    1.Overruling
B. Subordinate legislation                                 2.Immemorable origin
C. Custom                                                         3.Guest control order
D. Precedent                                                      4.Indian Penal Code
5. Constitution
Codes:
A   B   C    D
(a)  4    3    2     1
(b)  2    1    5     3
(c)  4    1    2    3
(d)  2   3    5    1
Ans: (a)
Q. 32. Consider the following statements
1, Custom is a usage followed by the people and adopted by the courts.
2. Custom originates by individual technique.
3. Legislation cannot abrogate custom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
Q. 33. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Conventional Custom: Usage
(b) Legal Custom: Binding rules of law
(c) Valid Custom: Reasonableness
(d) Usage: Common law
Ans. (d)
Q. 34. According to Salmond, which theory of punishment out of the following is in itself not a remedy for the mischief of the offence but an aggravation of it and it invites pain and suffering and is offensive to the considerations of the humanity?
(a)Retributive
(b) Deterrent
(c)Preventive
(d) Expiatory
Ans. (a)
Q. 35. Match List-I (Exponent) with List-II (School of Jurisprudence) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I                                                               List-II
(Exponent)                                                         (School of Jurisprudence)
A.A.H Kelsen                                                   1. Natural
B. F. Savigny                                                    2, Pure Theory
C. J. Rawis                                                        3. Sociological
D. H. Maine                                                      4. Historical
Codes:
A  B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (a)
Q. 36. Consider the following statements
St. Thomas Aquinas
1. belongs to Dark Ages.
2. is a naturalist,
3. supports use of force by the Church.
4. uses rational arguments to promote the authority of the Church.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l and3
(b) 2and4
(c) 1and 4
(d) 2and3
Ans. (d)
Q. 37. Consider the following statements
Naturalists think of law in time-frame of continuum and positivists think in the time-frame of the present because:
1. law is a continuous process.
2. law and life are in a continuous process.
3. natural law is of divine origin whereas positive law is man-made.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3, only
(c) l, 2and3
(d) 1 only
Ans. (a)
Q. 38. Consider the following statements
1. Imperative has to originate from normative.
2. Law is both a system of norms and a form of social control.
3. Province of jurisprudence is to observe the wants for the supply of which laws have been invented.
4. Prime junction of law is to protect ethics and morality.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2and3
(b) 2,3and4
(c) 1,3and4
(d) 1,2and4
Ans. (d)
Q. 39. Who among the following propounded the theory of Volkgeist?
(a) Henry Maine
(b) Montesquieu
(c) Roscoe Pound
(d) F. Savigny AS.
Ans: (d)
Q. 40. Consider the following statements
1. Many positivists concede the existence of objectively valid moral propositions.
2. Many positivists concede that moral principles may be treated as superior to positive rules.
3. Positivists contend that laws are man-made and can be just or unjust
4. Positivists contend that natural law shall have no significance if a positive rule of law provides otherwise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 1, 3 and 4, only
(d) 2, 3 and 4, only
Ans. (c)

2. The tail of flying birds acts as rudder. By this statement we can understand that the tail acts as:
(a) A part of the body which is beautiful
(b) A part which wards off flies and mosquitoes
(c) A part which guides the bird while flying
(d) A part which helps the bird take off

3. The combination of which of the following soils is best for plant growth
(a) Clay, sand & gravel
(b) Humus, clay & gravel
(c) Sand, humus & gravel
(d) Humus, sand & clay

4. Which of the following does not belong to the group formed by the other trees?
(a) Mango
(b) Coconut
(c) Tamarind
(d) Neem

5. In spring which of the following occurs?
(a) The days are longer & nights are shorter
(b) The nights are longer & days are shorter
(c) Days and nights are of almost equal duration
(d) None of the above

6. Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall
(a) Evaporation
(b) Condensation
(c) Both evaporation & condensation
(c) Filteration

7. A human body consists of ________ number of bones
(a) 205
(b) 206
(c) 207
(d) 208

8. Sanjay has a sugar cube in her mouth, in which part of his tongue, will the cube be sweetest?
(a) Front
(b) Middle
(c) Rear
(d) Sides

9. The mosquito repellent (coils, mats and liquids) that we generally use in our homes are:
(a) Pesticides
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Sedatives
(d) Insecticides

10.  Cows have strong grinding teeth at the back of the mouth, but they cannot eat the flesh of the of other animals. This is because:
(a) They do not need to eat the flesh
(b) They don’t have strong grinding teeth at the front
(c) They don’t have long sharp pointed teeth
(d) They dislike eating flesh

11. During summer the earth is
(a) Closer to the sun
(b) Away from the sun
(c) Closer to the moon
(d) Away from the moon

12. Non-green plants like mushroom can’t make their own food because:
(a) They are too small
(b) They lack chlorophyll
(c) They lack photo-tropism
(d) They lack roots to suck water

13. Most of the reptiles like snakes, crocodiles, etc. eat their food by:
(a) Tearing its flesh
(b) A process called cud chewing
(c) Swallowing it as a whole
(d) Sucking its blood

14. How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation?
(a) 24 hrs.
(b) 1 day
(c) 1 year
(d) Both A & B

15. How many muscles are there in a human body?
(a) 600
(b) 700
(c) 800
(d) 900

16. Which of the following is not a part of the excretory system?
(a) Eyes
(b) Kidneys
(c) Lungs
(d) Skin

17. During breathing which gas is most required by us?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carondioxide
(d) Nitrogen

18. Which part of the body controls all the other organs?
(a) Heart
(b) Eyes
(c) Brain
(d) Stomach

19. Flamingos have ______ kind of feet
(a) Perching
(b) Wading
(c) Webbed
(d) None of these

20. The tomato plant falls under the category of:
(a) Herbs
(b) Shrubs
(c) Trees
(d) Grass

21. Which Indian scientist has got a Nobel Prize for his contribution in physics?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Albert Einstein
(d) Hargovind Khurana

22. When some sugar is dissolved in a glass of water, the water level:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) None of the above

23. The nature of relationship between condensation & evaporation is:
(a) They are the same
(b) They are opposite
(c) They are similar but not in all respects
(d) None of the above

24. We slip very easily on a wet floor because
(a) Water reduces the friction
(b) Water increases the friction
(c) We slip because we lose our balance
(d) None of the above

25. The process of solid changing into liquid upon the supply of heat is called:
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Melting
(d) Boiling

26. When we exhale, our lungs have to:
(a) Contract
(b) Expand
(c) Be still
(d) None of the above

27. Our head is made up of only one movable bone; it is called:
(a) Skull
(b) Cranium
(c) Jawbone
(d) Collarbone

28. The young ones of the frog are called:
(a) Young frogs
(b) Frog cubs
(c) Puppies
(d) Tadpoles

29. Paper is mainly made up of:
(a) Cellulose & starch
(b) Polythene & cotton
(c) Bamboo & grass
(d) Sunflower & Maize

30. Our sun is:
(a) Planet
(b) Satellite
(c) Comet
(d) Star

ANSWERS

1. (a)         2. (c)            3. (d)                 4. (b)                   5. (c)
6. (c)          7.(b)           8. (a)                 9. (d)                  10.  (c)
11. (a)       12. (b)       13. (c)               14. (d)                  15. (a)
16. (a)      17. (b)        18. (c)              19. (b)                   20. (a)
21. (d)       22. (c)        23. (b)             24. (a)                   25. (c)
26. (a)        27. (c)      28. (d)              29. (c)                  30. (d)

a) 9    b) 11
c) 13    d) 15
19.     Which is the odd one out in the following —
a) Triangle    b) Rectangle        c) Circle    d) Sphere
20.     If we are viewing an angle of 30 through a magnifying glass capable of magnifying 3 times, how big would the angle look?
a) 90    b) 30
c) 60    d) 120
21. 300 bananas were purchased at Rs.128 a  hundred. What should be the selling price per dozen, if a profit of Rs.66 is to be made?
a) Rs.15    b) Rs.18        c) Rs.20    d) Rs.21
22. Choose the correct algebraic statement for the following “A number is equal to 3 less than three times another number”
a) y=3x – 3    b) y=3x/3        c) y=3x+5    d) 3y=3x-3
23.     Which of the following numbers is divisible by 18 (remainder 0)?
a) 245678    b) 2456789        c) 2445678    d) 2455678
24.     A 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm brick weights 64 kg. What would be the weight of a brick of size 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm?
a) 32 kg    b) 8 kg        c) 16 kg    d) 1 kg
25.     What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at 6.30 p.m.?
a) 00    b) 150
c) 300    d) 1950
26. Mr. Dhoni has 5 pairs of white gloves and 5 pairs of black gloves, which he keeps in a box. If he picks 3 gloves at random, what is the probability that he will get a matching pair?
a) 0.5    b) 0.75        c) 0.9    d) 1
27.     If the length and breadth of a room are 48 feet and 24 feet respectively, and the space diagonal (one corner on ceiling to opposite corner on floor) is 56 feet, what is the height of the room?
a) 14 feet    b) 15 feet        c) 16 feet    d) 17 feet
28.     What is the next number in the following sequence?
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, ……
a) 50    b) 55
c) 53    d) 51
29. ’34′ is related to ’12′ in the same way as ’59′ is related to -
a) 95    b) 54
c) 45    d) 17
30. If 20 x X = 20 + X, what is the value of X?
a) 19/20    b) 18/20        c) 18/19    d) 20/19
31.    Which neighbouring country of India embraced democracy recently to become the world’s youngest democracy?
a) Nepal    b) Bhutan        c) Pakistan    d) Srilanka
32. Which of the following took over the Anglo Dutch Steel Company Corus?
a) Arcelor Mittal
b) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
c) Tata Steel                d) Jindal Steel
33. For International Payments the Indian currency is linked to -
a) Gold Standard    b) International Oil Price
c) American Dollars    d) Pound Sterling
34. Which organization, headed by Indian environmentalist Dr. R.K.Pachauri has been awarded Nobel Peace Prize in 2007?
a) International Panel on Global Warming
b) International Environmental Panel
c) International Panel on Pollution Control
d) International Panel on Climate change
35. Which day is observed as the World Habitat Day?
a) March, 27    b) September, 30
c) October 5    d) October 2
36.     Which game will be played for the first time in 2010 Asian Games?
a) Twenty-20 Cricket    b) Kabaddi
c) Kho-Kho    d) Gilli Danda
37.     Reserve Bank of India is a –
a) Private Bank    b) Commercial Bank
c) Foreign Bank    d) Central Bank
38.     Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of origin?
a) Brahmaputra and Indus
b) Brahmaputra and Ganga
c) Godavari and Krishna
d) Indus and Ganga
39. What is the main advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice?
a) It helps in early harvesting
b) The draininig of water from the field before harvesting is made easy
c) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain
d) It ensures maximum utilization of land
40.     All of the following rivers flow into or join the Ganges on its left side except -
a) Gomti    b) Gandak        c) Son    d) Kosi
41. As the height above sea level increases, the temperature -
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) First decreases and then increases    d) Change of height has no effect on temperature
42. Which of the two planets listed below are closer to the sun than the earth?
a) Mercury and Mars    b) Mercury and Venus
c) Venus and Mars    d) Jupiter and Saturn
43. Which of the following countries is not in the continent of Asia?
a) Lebanon    b) Libya        c) Japan    d) Singapore
44. The land masses of India and Srilanka are connected by which of the following straits?
a) Bass Strait    b) Bering Strait    c) Malacca Strait    d) Palk Strait
45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Manipur ` Imphal    b) Meghalaya-Shillong
c) Mizoram – Agartala    d) Nagaland – Kohima
46. From North to South, the correct sequence of the following sea ports is —
a) Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakapatnam, Paradip
b) Paradip, Chennai, Vishakapatnam, Tuticorin
c) Paradip, Vishakapatnam, Tuticorin, Chennai    d) Paradip, Vishakapatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin
47. The International Date Line is Located in the –
a) Pacific Ocean    b) Indian Ocean
c) Atlantic Ocean    d) Arctic Ocean
48. Which Bank has recentlychanged its name to Axis Bank?
a) HDFC Bank    b) Citi Bank
c) ICICI Bank    d) UTI Bank
49. What is the expanded form of MICR -
a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition    b) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
c) Magnetic Inline Character Reader        d) Magnetic Inline Code Reader
50. Which sector contributes most to the GDP of India?
a) Iron and Steel Industry
b) Railway
c) Cotton Textile Industry            d) Service Sector

ANSWERS

1. d    2. c    3. a    4. c    5. c    6. c    7. b    8. c    9. a    10. d        11. c    12. c    13. b    14. a    15. c    16. d    17. d    18. c    19. d    20. b        21. b    22. a    23. c    24. d    25. b    26. d    27. c    28. b    29. c    30. d        31. a    32. c    33. c    34. d    35. c    36. c    37. d    38. a    39. c    40. c        41. a    42. b    43. b    44. d    45. c    46. d    47. a    48. d    49. a    50. d